FLASHBACK: Federal Official Was Sworn In On Koran Seven Years Ago
Here's an interesting sidenote on the whole controversy Dennis Prager and other right-wing pundits have kicked up over Muslim Rep.-Elect Keith Ellison's plans to use a Koran for his symbolic swearing-in: It turns out this won't be the first time a federal official has used a Koran to be sworn into office.
Election Central has just spoken with Dr. Fred Beuttler, Deputy Historian for the House of Representatives, and he told us that M. Osman Siddique, the first Muslim ambassador in U.S. history, was sworn in on a Koran in 1999, when he became U.S. Ambassador to the Fiji Islands.
Dennis Prager insists that "neither I nor tens of millions of other Americans will watch in silence as the Bible is replaced with another religious text for the first time since George Washington brought a Bible to his swearing-in." (Emphasis added.) But as far as the Koran is concerned, at least, Prager's complaint is really seven years too late.















Rep. Debbie Wasserman Schultz didn't use a bible in her swearing-in photo-op either.
From The Hill, 1/5/05: Ackerman saves the day
Prager is just plain wrong.
December 6, 2006 4:40 PM | Reply | Permalink
1999? You know what that means! It's CLINTON'S FAULT!!!1!!
December 6, 2006 4:44 PM | Reply | Permalink
Prager is wrong almost beyond description. His attempt to distinguish between a religious test for office and an oath sworn on the Christian Bible (by the way, what Jew refers to the Hebrew Bible as "the Old Testament"?) is historically ludicrous. You see, the oaths on the Bible WERE the religious tests so explicitly rejected. (and I happen to know a bit about this, having spoken just last week at the Indiana ACLU on the Establishment Clause and oaths of office).
The Vermont Constitution of 1777, for example, including Section IX which, in relevant part, required each member of the house of representatives to take the oath-
That, you see, is far more than an oath- it is a religious test. Why? Because no Catholic, Jew, or other could take that oath, both because of the "protestant religion" language AND the obligation to accept the "new testament." Just making a person swear to, or on, the new testament was a religious test. You want something even more persuasive? When Vermont amended its constitution in 1786 it wrote:
In other words, by so amending they were acknowledging that the oath itself was a "religious test."
The Constitution of Massachusetts, 1780, had an oath of office, too:
By Prager's reasoning, this is just an oath, not a test. Of course, the act of placing your hand on the "New Testament" as an oath is as much a affirmation of its religious validity as the words themselves. And that, obviously, is the flaw in Prager's argument.
December 6, 2006 5:51 PM | Reply | Permalink
And just two years later, 9/11 happens. Coincidence? I think not.
December 6, 2006 8:43 PM | Reply | Permalink
I'm going to quibble very slightly and say that a bare oath without a theological component isn't quite the same the kind of religious tests that were instituted in England after the Reformation, carried over into state constitutions, and persisted in Britain under the various Test Acts as late as 1829.
That's moot, though, because 'no religious Test' and the option to affirm rather than swear are not recent additions, to put it mildly.
December 7, 2006 2:43 AM | Reply | Permalink
Someone should ask Orrin Hatch is he carries the Christian Bible or the Book of Mormon. If not Orrin, I bet some have been sworn in holding the Book of Mormon.
Also, the constitution is quite clear, not just with the "no religious test" statement, but also in the formulation "swear (or affirm)" that appears throughout the Federal Constitution, similar to the phrasing in the Vermont Constitution above. The reason for this particular formulation is that you 'swear' and oath on an object, such as a Bible. An affirmation, however, is not sworn on anything, but is merely a statement without any sacred connotation. The distinction was, and still is, important to certain Christian sects most notably the Quakers. At the end of the Sermon on the Mount, Christ says that one should not swear oaths. The Quakers take that quite seriously and were (and remain) conscientiously opposed to swearing oaths. The constitution takes that into account. It is clearly unconstitutional to require anyone to take any 'sacred' object in for the swearing in ceremony.
December 7, 2006 7:41 AM | Reply | Permalink
Some Christian denominations prohibit swearing oaths; that's why the option to "affirm" rather than "swear" is in there: because to 18th century Americans and British, requiring an oath at all was a religious test, calibrated to exclude several varieties of Dissenters, including Quakers.
December 7, 2006 9:49 AM | Reply | Permalink
I don't even see that as a quibble. My point above was that there is no "bare oath" if the oath is taken with your hand on the "New Testament." In other words, whether the oath is to the truth of the book, or on the book, the effect is the same and it is NOT a "bare oath." That said, posters below are also correct about Quakers and others, and even this is really a religious test.
December 7, 2006 10:45 AM | Reply | Permalink